Ruckman admitting he doesn’t know where the Word of God was before 1611

Ruckmanism falls all apart when an attempt is made to apply it consistently to the area of other languages as well as the era before 1611. The reason for this is that Ruckman demands a perfect Bible right now. If Ruckman has a right to demand and have a perfect Bible now, logic tells us that those who lived before 1611 had a right to demand and have a perfect Bible then. In this brief article we will demonstrate in Ruckman’s own writings that he doesn’t know or care where God’s Word was before 1611.

In his book The Scholarship only Controversy, page 22, Dr. Ruckman asks the following relevant question:

Where was the word of God before 1611?

The only problem is—he doesn’t answer his own question! Instead of answering the question, he calls those who would dare ask such a thing “equivocating sophists.”

When referring to the era before 1611, Ruckman is very non-specific and evasive. Observe:

God preserved it through many other channels until He produced His final and finished work: the Authorized Version of the Holy Bible in the universal language of the end time. (Ruckman, Peter. James White’s Seven “Errors” Bible Belivers’ Bulletin. March 1996, p. 13)

Notice in the following quote how Ruckman avoids his own question and admits he doesn’t care:

"What version of the Bible was the inerrant, infallible, inspired translation prior to the AV1611?" Answer: Who cares? Ask the people that read it. (Ruckman, Peter. Bible Belivers’ Bulletin Reprint Vol. 7 Strictly Personal. 2004, p. 251)

5 Responses to “Ruckman admitting he doesn’t know where the Word of God was before 1611”

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  1. Anonymous says:

    On page 228, of Biblical Scholarship-The Professional Liars:

    “13. ‘THE RUSSIANS HAD NO AUTHORIZED VERSION BEFORE 1700: WHAT ABOUT THEM? WHERE WAS THE WORD OF GOD BEFORE 1611?” Answer? Chapter FIVE. It was all over the world, because “the word of God is not bound” (2 Timothy 2:9). Tertullian says that European nations had the word of God before Constantine put out the Edict of Milan in A.D. 313″

  2. Webmaster says:

    Thank you for your input. When it comes to the Word of God in English in our present time, Ruckman demands that the Word of God must be infallible and "given by inspiration of God." He mocks those who say they don’t have a translation that meets that criteria. But you will not find a quote where he tells you specifically where the infallible inspired Word of God was in English before 1611, nor where it is specifically in an infallible inspired state in other languages at any other time. Every foreign translation he mentioned in the "Professional liars" chapter as well as chapter 5 is something he considers to be inferior to the Word of God after 1611 in English.

  3. Mr. Kang says:

    To suggest the scriptures must have been available to all people at all times is to ignore Biblical history: 2Ki 22:13 makes it plain “the book” had been out of circulation for a long time, even among God’s chosen people, to whom were “committed the oracles of God.” It’s not surprising during times of persecution or disobedience, scripture may not have been easily available.

    Where was the English bible before 1611? In Awe of Thy Word: Understanding the King James Bible Its Mystery and History Letter by Letter by Riplinger has chapters that cover this pretty well.

  4. Particular Baptist says:

    The unbound, engrafted, pure word that endureth forever (II Tim. 2.9; Jas. 1.21; I Pe. 1.24-5 quoting Isa. 40), in which all Christians hope and gives light from darkness (Ps. 130.5, 119.105, 130; Pro. 6.23-5) are extant in the coallation of the Second Rabbinic Bible or Masorete texts from the twelfth century and Byzantine texts dating to pre-apostolic times.

    It is interesting the Baptist Catechism of 1695, intended for the instructiom of infants and ignorants, has a better understanding than Ruckman on how the Bible works, and what it is, than Ruckman the braggart author of hundreds of books: Notice, this Catechism was penned originally some 45 years after the first edition of the English Authorized Version.

    Q. 4. What is the Word of God?
    A. The Scriptures of the Old and New Testaments, being given by divine inspiration, are the Word of God, the only infallible rule of faith and practice. (2 Pet. 1:21; 2 Tim. 3:16, 17; Is. 8:20)

    Q. 5. How do we know that the Bible is the Word of God?
    A. The Bible evidences itself to be God’s Word by the heavenliness of its doctrine, the unity of
    its parts, its power to convert sinners and to edify saints; but the Spirit of God only, bearing
    witness by and with the Scriptures in our hearts, is able fully to persuade us that the Bible is the Word of God. (1 Cor. 2:6, 7, 13; Ps. 119:18, 129; Acts 10:43, 26:22; Acts 18:28; Heb. 4:12; Ps. 19:7-9; Rom. 15:4; Jn. 16:13, 14; 1 Jn. 2:20-27; 2 Cor. 3:14-17)

    Q. 6. May all men make use of the Scriptures?
    A. All men are not only permitted, but commanded and exhorted, to read, hear, and understand
    the Scriptures. (Jn. 5:39; Lk. 16:29; Acts 8:28-30; 17:11)
    (Now, if that is so, the scriptures MUST have existed before 1611, for no man can read a mythic document!)

    Q. 7. What do the Scriptures principally teach?
    A. The Scriptures principally teach what man is to believe concerning God and what duty God requires of man. (2 Tim. 3:16, 17; Jn. 20:31; Acts 24:14; 1 Cor. 10:11; Eccl. 12:13)

    Yet, the most damning is this interview with Texe Marrs, who calls Ruckman his good friend
    (II Chron. 19.2-3; Pro. 17.15-20); notice what he says about John 5.39! This prodcast isr just before his book Manuscript Evidence was released.

  5. Craig says:

    You are very contentious. God takes time to perfect the Christian. There’s nothing to suggest He would not also take His time to perfect His word in the universal language of the end times when that language was at it’s peak. Your real problem is with something else, Ruckman personally, or something carnal, and it’s causing you to behave in ways unbecoming.

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